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OCEG GRCP Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Align Component: This subsection covers aligning GRC practices with organizational objectives and regulatory requirements. A vital skill evaluated is the ability to integrate GRC processes into business operations effectively.

Topic 2

GRC Capability Model Details: This section of the exam measures the skills of GRC Strategy Makers and covers detailed components of the GRC Capability Model. It includes understanding various elements and practices, key actions, and controls necessary for effective governance, risk management, and compliance.

Topic 3

GRC Key Concepts: This section of the exam measures the skills of GRC Governance Professionals and covers essential concepts related to reliably achieving objectives, addressing uncertainty, and acting with integrity. It also includes an understanding of the Lines of Accountability™ and the Integrated Action & Control Model™, which provide frameworks for governance and risk management. A key skill assessed is the ability to apply these concepts to enhance organizational performance.

Topic 4

Learn Component: This subsection focuses on the learning aspect of the GRC Capability Model, emphasizing foundational knowledge necessary for effective governance practices. A key skill assessed is understanding basic GRC principles to support strategic initiatives.

Topic 5

Perform Component: This subsection emphasizes executing GRC activities and implementing controls to manage risks effectively. A key skill assessed is the ability to perform risk assessments and implement necessary actions.

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OCEG GRC Professional Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q155-Q160):

NEW QUESTION # 155
What is the importance of linking (or laddering) objectives with superior-level objectives?

A. Linking with superior-level objectives is necessary to reduce the number of objectives and simplify the organization's structure
B. Linking with superior-level objectives is important for ensuring that employees receive appropriate compensation and benefits based on meeting objectives
C. Linking with superior-level objectives is essential to ensure organizational alignment and to ensure that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization
D. Linking with superior-level objectives is essential to ensure that the same exact objectives are used by all levels and units in their day-to-day jobs

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 156
In the IACM, what is the role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls?

A. To assess any damage done to the company from non-compliance
B. To slow down or decrease the impact of unfavorable events and return the organization to its original, stable, or superior state after harm has occurred
C. To ensure that all employees adhere to the company's code of conduct
D. To ensure that unfavorable events do not affect the profitability of the organization

Answer: B

Explanation:
Correct/Recover Actions & Controlsin theIACMfocus on responding to adverse events by minimizing their impact and restoring normal operations.
Key Points About Correct/Recover Actions & Controls:
* Purpose:
* These controls aim to reduce the harm caused by unfavorable events and ensure a swift recovery to stability or an improved state.
* Examples include incident response plans, disaster recovery measures, and corrective action processes.
* Alignment with Risk Management:
* Corrective and recovery actions are critical components of frameworks likeNIST CSFandISO
22301 (Business Continuity Management), which emphasize post-incident recovery.
Why Option B is Correct:
The role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls is todecrease the impact of unfavorable eventsand restore the organization to its original or improved state after an incident.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A: Damage assessment is part of the recovery process but does not fully capture the role of Correct
/Recover actions.
* C: Adherence to the code of conduct falls under compliance, not recovery controls.
* D: Preventing impact on profitability is not always possible; the focus is on recovery, not prevention.
References and Resources:
* ISO 22301:2019- Business Continuity Management Systems.
* NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)- Focuses on corrective and recovery actions.
* COSO ERM Framework- Highlights recovery as part of the risk response process.

NEW QUESTION # 157
What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

A. This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.
B. This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.
C. This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.
D. This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Technology-based inquiry is advantageous because it often provides information sooner than traditional methods, enabling quicker responses to events and issues.
Benefits of Technology-Based Inquiry:
Real-Time Data: Enables immediate detection of issues through automated alerts or analytics.
Broader Coverage: Monitors large volumes of data and activities more efficiently than manual methods.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A: Technology-based inquiry complements surveys but does not replace them entirely.
B: Information analysis is still required, even when gathered through technology.
C: Technology-based inquiry identifies both favorable and unfavorable events, not just the latter.
Reference:
COSO ERM Framework: Highlights the use of technology in monitoring and inquiry processes.
OCEG GRC Capability Model: Discusses technology-based tools for faster issue detection.

NEW QUESTION # 158
What is the term used to describe the outcome or potential outcome of an event?

A. Effect
B. Impact
C. Consequence
D. Condition

Answer: C

Explanation:
The termConsequencerefers to the outcome or potential outcome of an event, which can be positive, negative, or neutral.
* Definition:
* Consequences are the results or effects that occur when an event happens, influencing objectives either favorably or unfavorably.
* Relation to Risk:
* In risk management, consequences are analyzed to understand the implications of identified risks.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* B(Impact): Refers to the magnitude or extent of a consequence.
* C(Condition): Represents the state or circumstances surrounding an event, not its outcome.
* D(Effect): Similar to consequence but used in a broader context not specific to events.
References:
* ISO 31000 (Risk Management): Defines consequences as outcomes that influence objectives.
* COSO ERM Framework: Analyzes consequences in the context of risk events.

NEW QUESTION # 159
What are some examples of industry factors that may influence an organization's external context?

A. New technologies available to the organization and its competitors.
B. Product development, branding, and advertising campaigns.
C. New entrants, competitors, suppliers, and customers.
D. Political involvement of competitors.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Industry factors influencing an organization's external context include elements within the competitive and market environment that impact strategy, operations, and performance.
* Key Industry Factors:
* New Entrants: Potential competitors entering the market can disrupt established dynamics.
* Competitors: Existing market players directly affect competitive positioning and market share.
* Suppliers: Influence cost structures, supply chain stability, and material availability.
* Customers: Drive demand and influence product or service offerings.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A: Product development and branding are internal factors, not external industry factors.
* B: Political involvement of competitors is an external political or regulatory factor, not an industry-specific one.
* D: New technologies are external technological factors, not strictly industry-related.
References:
* Porter's Five Forces Framework: Highlights industry forces, including new entrants, competitors, suppliers, and customers.
* ISO 31000 (Risk Management): Discusses external context considerations, including industry-specific factors.

NEW QUESTION # 160
......

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